1 King 7:14
fernando.arias at lycos.com
Thu Oct 26 19:54:47 EDT 2000
I have some questions related to 1 King 7:14:
1)Why does the Hebrew words translated as "widow's son" have the word "ishsha"(woman)?
2)Why doesn't the original just use the word "almanah" (widow) alone without the word "ishsha"?
3)Is there any other example in the Bible of such use of both words, "ishsha" and "almanah"?
Thanks in advance for your answers,
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