Peter_Kirk at sil.org
Tue Dec 19 10:54:30 EST 2000
Perhaps he is using FULFIL (or rather the Greek word behind it) in a rather
different way from how you are taking it. We are accustomed to understand
FULFIL in the sense of "come true", in the context of prophecies. But there
are many other things which could be meant by this word e.g. the "this
happened to fulfil" formula could simply be an indication of a typological
From: John Richards [mailto:jhr at universalist.worldonline.co.uk]
Sent: 19 December 2000 11:20
To: Biblical Hebrew
Subject: Re: Proof Texts
----- Original Message -----
From: "George Athas" <gathas at globalfreeway.com.au>
> The NT writers do not seem to be finding proof-texts in the sense that I
think you are
> advocating. They seem to be employing typology. For example, Matthew's
Gospel uses the
> "out of Egypt" text as a precedent or "type" for Jesus rather than saying
that it was
> originally and totally about Jesus.
If this is the case, why does Matthew so frequently use the form "this
happened so as to FULFIL what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet . .
. " - as he does with the "out of Egypt" quotation itself?
I agree that later patristic writers like Origen often saw things more in
terms of symbolism, but that is a different matter.
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