Gen 1:1 Creatio Ex Nihilo?
lizfried at umich.edu
Tue Aug 29 23:42:40 EDT 2000
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Bill Ross [mailto:wross at farmerstel.com]
> Sent: Tuesday, August 29, 2000 11:13 PM
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: RE: Gen 1:1 Creatio Ex Nihilo?
> This being the case, some people suppose that bara always implies
> creatio ex nihilo, but that is not correct.
> To your mind, does it imply anything at all? What might be the
> of the reserved usage? Or is it reserved?
It does seem to be reserved to God. Of the 43 times
the word is used, 28 are used by P and by Isaiah.
The rest are in Psalms, Ezekiel, Jeremiah, and I
think they quote Gen.
(All of which supports my suspicion that P is pre-exilic,
and that 1st Isaiah is P, but that is neither
here nor there.)
I think it's simply the word that P reserves for God's
> Bill Ross
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