James.R.Griffin at James.R.Griffin at
Tue Nov 2 14:54:36 EST 1999

O ye linguists, hearken to my question.

I have been discussing the nature of the imperative mood with my Hebrew
instructor. It is clear that the imperative does not occur in the Pual and
Hofal stems, both of which are passive in nature. The imperative does appear
in the Nifal. I understand this usage to be reflexive, and not passive.
Based upon this information, I came to the conclusion that the Hebrews never
used an imperative in a passive voice. Is this a valid statement? 

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