The "times" of Isaiah

peter_kirk at peter_kirk at
Wed Aug 18 14:23:48 EDT 1999

I must disagree with the quoted sentence. In Turkish there is a 
timeless tense (called "aorist", but very different from the Greek 
aorist) which is used for generic examples etc and does not imply any 
C, RT and ET context. And how about so called tenseless languages? As 
pointed out recently, they have their means of indicating time context 
where necessary, but are you claiming that they add such a time 
indication even when it is not necessary? It could well be that Hebrew 
works more like Turkish in this respect.

Peter Kirk

______________________________ Reply Separator _________________________________
Subject: Re: The "times" of Isaiah
Author:  zellmer at at internet
Date:    16/08/1999 11:05



I would agree that all languages put these portions, the ones that focus 
on something other than the relative timing of its elements to each other 
and to the speaker/hearer, into some C, RT, and ET context.


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