The "times" of Isaiah

Paul Zellmer zellmer at
Wed Aug 18 10:06:21 EDT 1999

True, Solomon.  I believe Rolf was asking about vv 12-17.  I just used
my response to you to make this statement because the subject was a
continuation of the thread in which Rolf asked the question.

Pardon my laziness.  I should have made that more clear.


> Isaiah 44:2, 6 and similar in Hebrew,    )MAR YHWH in the LXX is LEGEI
KURIOS, with
> "legei" being present indicative active: "He is saying, he says,"
i.e., "Thus says
> [YHWH]."
> Solomon Landers
> Memra Institute for Biblical Research
> Paul Zellmer wrote:
> > Solomon,
> >
> > Although I argued that the Hebrew treats this as past-time, I trust
> > do realize that I do not disagree with Rolf on how the term would
> > be translated into English and other European languages.  I think
> > understanding of the force of the introductory phrase is right on.
> >
> > Having said that:  Rolf, you asked about translations that treated
> > passage as past time.  I just glanced at the LXX (my greek has
> > too rusty to sight-read, since I have concentrated on Hebrew now for
> > past few years), but it seems to me as if the verbs are aorist or
> > possibly imperfect there.  Will that do as an example?
> >
> > Paul Zellmer
> >
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