The form of weqatal (really wayyiqtol)
peter_kirk at sil.org
peter_kirk at sil.org
Mon Aug 16 21:48:11 EDT 1999
If you (like me) are not a phonologist, you cannot simply ignore the
results of phonological analysis, which seem to show that your
explanation of wayyiqtol does not work, however many other
non-phonologists may support you. In your latest posting you wrote,
"nothing in my syntactic approach rises or falls on the phonological
part". Unfortunately this is not true. If Henry's results mean what
they appear to, your approach falls because its underlying phonological
Suppose you had some proposal for some new mechanical invention. You
can demonstrate a small-scale prototype, and you can even find a major
potential customer who says that your invention has "the potential to
revolutionize life as we know it". But then a physicist tells you that
he can prove that your invention can never work at full scale because
it violates a fundamental law of physics. What do you do, if you are
not a physicist yourself? I think you would be well advised to at
least check out what the one physicist says with other experts in the
field before investing in large scale manufacture.
So I suggest that you check out with other phonologists whether
Henry's objections are really as fatal as they appear to be to your
theory, rather than rely on good recommendations from other
______________________________ Reply Separator _________________________________
Subject: Re: The form of weqatal (really wayyiqtol)
Author: dwashbur at nyx.net at internet
Date: 16/08/1999 01:11
We have been over this many, many, many times over a stretch of
at least 2 years. I have presented my view both online and in print,
and apparently the editors of such journals as Hebrew Studies
thought it had enough merit to publish. When I presented it to the
SBL a few years ago, one major scholar among the listeners said
the view had "the potential to revolutionize study of Hebrew
grammar," and that's a direct quote (I taped the session). As I said
before, you're free to harangue all you want, but if all you want to
do is whine and make fun, don't expect me to take you seriously.
My position and the material that supports it is well documented,
as a simple trip through the archives (and the journals) would have
told you. I won't try to interact with this kind of drivel. If you have
something constructive to say, let's hear it. Otherwise, I suggest
you find something else to do.
> Dave wrote:
> > <snip>
> > >
> > > Dave, you're asking us to believe that wayyiqtol is a verb form that (1)
> > > NEVER takes the conjunction, though all other verb forms do; (2) NEVER
> > > is preceded by things that precede other verbs like KIY, 'ASHER, LO',
> > > etc. etc.
> > I see nothing extraordinary about (2), since it's well known that
> > wayyiqtol in fact isn't preceded by any of these particles.
> It's not extraordinary if the WA- of wayyiqtol is the familiar conjunction, bu
> extremely extraordinary, odd, and unbelievable if it's not. How do you explai
> wayyiqtol is a finite verb form that is never in the whole Hebrew Bible
> Why doesn't Gen 1:5 read
> wayyiqra' Elohim la'or yom, welaxoshek wayyiqra laylah
> Similar question for thousands of other examples!
> You're serious about this?
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