Literal translation of Dan 11:32

Lewis Reich LBR at
Thu Sep 24 10:29:20 EDT 1998

On 24 Sep 98, at 9:07, Lee R. Martin wrote:

> All references to the subject are plural except for the 3ms 
> pronominal suffix.  Why is it singular? 

It seemed to me that it is singular because  (aM  -  nation or 
people, is a collective noun, and Hebrew treats singular collective 
nouns as American English does (the company has decided) rather than 
as British English does (the company have decided) - as taking 
singular verbs and pronouns.  

> Is it possible that we have misunderstood this verse? 
> Paraphrased, might it mean "but the people who are aware of his god
> (that is, this false god of the enemy) will prevail and act." 

If (aM is singular in number, then the verse can be read (more 
naturally, I think) as "But the nation that knows its god..."  Thus 
it would describe the nation who knows (appreciates and worships) the 
true God, in contrast to the nation described previously.

Lewis Reich
LBR at

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