iriegner at concentric.net
Tue Sep 15 16:28:53 EDT 1998
I was just reading in a biblical Aramaic grammar that in the so-called
l"h verbs in biblical Aramaic, which are really l"y / l"a verbs, the "h"
in the 3rd sing. masc ending functions as a mater lectionis indicating
that the previous vowel (a qamatz) is long. Does the "h" also function
this way in biblical Hebrew? In the 3rd sing. fem---e.g. bnth = she
built? How about the "h" in 3rd sing. fem. hollow verbs---e.g. qmh =
she arose? How about in the imperfective where a segol precedes the
Thanks for your responses.
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