alfred.silberman at lmco.com
Tue Sep 8 10:19:09 EDT 1998
My question is:
Why isn't there a tone retraction on the word Va-Yitzoq (and he poured) in
Genesis 28:18 (the question is on this word - not just for this
occurrence). There are two reasons why the tone here should be retracted:
1. The word comes with a "reversing vav" (or whatever you want to call it)
which normally causes a retraction of the tone - the xolem would then
change to a qametz qatan.
2. It has a conjunctive accent to a word whose tone is on the first syllable.
This word only has one occurrence of a retraction and apparently has an
intransitive meaning when it occurs (also, the xolem goes to a seghol not
to a qametz qatan).
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