Verbs in Ps 18 ans 2 Sam 22
tiphillips at InfoAve.Net
Thu Sep 3 21:20:34 EDT 1998
Bryan Rocine wrote:
> Dear Fiends,
> I wonder why my earlier question did not illicit any responses on-list.
> the so-called "vav(or waw)-conversive," no matter what exactly it
> is called,--Oh, boy, I shouldn't say this...so many scholars, so much
> weighty tradition!!!-- does not exist. The prefixed "narrative morpheme"
> <vav-patakh-dagesh forte> on a yiqtol has discourse function rather than
> conversive power. It makes *explicit*(like the English words _then_ and
> _so_) the consecutivity of events that is left implicit without it.
> There really is no great shortage of "un-vavved" yiqtols which represent
> single, past events, for instance, over 20 of them following the particle
> I had written:
[SNIP previous post]
I am admittedly unsophisticated as a Hebraist (and the only reason I call myself one
is because surely to goodness I deserve to imagine it after spending tons of money and
years banging around with B-Hebrew :-).
So then tolerate me when I ask, are you saying the waw-convcrsive is not necessarily
conversive at all, but instead a method of emphasis of linking passages to build a
continuity within a larger discourse (?).
Thus, have I tried to pick up on this discourse business, and it seems quite natural.
I have done some translating in the past, and actually understood the above (whether
that's what you are proposing or not) in ignorance, I suppose. I just thought of the
author(s) as storytellers, relating events and traditions dramatically or even in
Am I understanding or totally misunderstanding?
tiphillips at infoave.net
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