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<br>Jonathan Robie wrote:
<blockquote TYPE=CITE>At 02:26 AM 11/26/99 +0100, RobertP wrote:
<br>>How to understand expression from 1 Cor. 7,1 KALON ANTHRWPOU...?
<p>Is there a textual variant that says KALON ANQRWPOU? My text says KALON
<br>ANQRWPWi. I think it is easier to understand if you read the entire
<br>which I read as follows:
<p>KALON (ANQRWPWi (GUNAIKOS MH hAPESQAI))
<br>it is good (for a man (a woman not to touch))</blockquote>
I'm sorry of course ANQRWPWi
<p>>1. KALON it is neutral gendre and it should be translated as The Good
<br>>a good thing) or it is so like in classical poetry where KALON is
<br>>in the meanning of adverb KALWS (well). For example I read that Homer
<br>>uses KALWS very seldom (Il.18,570; Od. 1,155) and KALON in the meanning
<br>>of KALWS very often.
<p>I'm not really up on classical Greek, but I think you are right here.
<p>>2. Why in this sentence there are'nt ESTIN?
<p>The Greek doesn't really need it, but you can insert it without changing
<br>the meaning, I think:
<p>KALON ESTIN (ANQRWPWi (GUNAIKOS MH hAPESQAI))
<p>>Couldn't be so that this expressions is only typical for greeks ways
<p>I'm not sure what you are asking - in English or German, we would expect
<br>the ESTIN, but in Greek, it is very common for it to be "missing" -
<br>isn't really missing as far as the Greek speaker is concerned, but
<br>seems like it is missing to you and me.</blockquote>
Maby my question was not so clear. In 3 th question I didn't think about
ESTIN but about construction KALON + dative, because I read in one
book that this construction is always used if one wants to express
that something is salutary, profitable... for somebody. I now that Greeks
spoke in such a sublimy way, f. ex. in sentence: It would
be better for me to die then to live ( LXX Jon.4,8)) I don't now about
constraction KALON + dative in classical greek? I would like to now some
<blockquote TYPE=CITE> </blockquote>