[B-Greek] 1 John 4:2 and 2 John 7
leonardj at live.com
Thu Dec 30 05:41:04 EST 2010
(I am re-sending this post as I forgot to copy it to B-Greek the first time.)
Date: Wed, 29 Dec 2010 02:01:01 -0800
From: gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1 John 4:2 and 2 John 7
To: leonardj at live.com; nebarry at verizon.net
CC: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
You are being rather idiosyncratic and interpreting the passage contrary to that which it clearly must have since there are six occurances of Ιησ* Χριστ* IHS* XRIST* in 1 Jn: 1.3; 2.1; 3.23; 4.2; 5.6, 20. It would seem to function as a "joint" name rather than a name and not as a nominal sentence. If you understand Ιησοῦν Χριστόν IHSOUN XRISTON as a nominal sentence "Jesus is Christ" here, what distinguishes it from other uses by the same author?
LJ: "[W]hat distinguishes it from other uses by the same author" is that the context demands and the grammar permits taking IHSOUN CRISTON in 1 John 4:2 as on object-complement double accusative, as explained in detail in my earlier posts.
If you think that IHSOUN CRISTON in 4:2 should be read just as it is in the other passages you cited, i.e., as a personal name (IHSOUN) followed by a title (CRISTON), then take a look at 1 Corinthians 8:6:
ALL' hHMIN hEIS QEOS hO PATHR ... KAI hEIS KURIOS IHSOUS CRISTOS ....
The phrase KURIOS IHSOUS CRISTOS occurs many times in the NT, including the writings of Paul, in all of which cases it is to be read as "Lord Jesus Christ," but in the above passage alone we should read it as "one Lord, Jesus Christ" ("Jesus Christ" in apposition with "Lord"). If we follow your logic, we should read hEIS KURIOS IHSOUS CRISTOS as "one Lord Jesus Christ."
P.S.: Note to Iver Larsen: If you are reading this, I will reply to your post tomorrow.
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