[B-Greek] How should one understand I Cor. 11:33?

Blue Meeksbay bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com
Fri Dec 17 12:18:35 EST 2010

Let me send this again, as it seemed I had a problem the first time.

Hi Iver,
I do not think there is any difference between the two examples. That was my 
observance also, that is why I was wondering if it was just a stylistic 
preference. George S. seems to think so. Sorry, I guess I did not communicate my 
thoughts very well.  In verse 20 he uses just a simple infinitive, and did not 
use EIS TO, but as verse 33 was his concluding thoughts on the subject, I 
wondered why he did not continue with a simple infinitive when it would have 
communicated the same thought. I was wondering if in his conclusion he was 
trying to emphasize purpose in a fuller way, especially since their partaking of 
the Lord’s Supper seemed to be a manifestation of their observance of the 
traditions Paul passed on to them that Paul mentions in the beginning of this 
subject in I Cor. 11:2. Or, on the other hand, I wondered if he added EIS TO 
because he was now using FAGEIN as an infinitive of result.
I am not sure what the answer is, since they all seem to fit the context. I’m 
trying to find all the possibilities.
Blue Harris 

From: Iver Larsen <iver_larsen at sil.org>
To: Blue Meeksbay <bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com>; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Fri, December 17, 2010 8:35:41 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] How should one understand I Cor. 11:33?

Since you know English better than me, can you tell me the difference between:

1. So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.

2. So then, my brethren, when you come together in order to eat, wait for one 

Iver Larsen

----- Original Message ----- From: "Blue Meeksbay" <bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 17. december 2010 18:30
Subject: [B-Greek] How should one understand I Cor. 11:33?

> Dear list,
> I am trying to look at I Cor. 11:33 from every angle. If we focus on the
> infinitive, what is the purpose of EIS TO with purpose infinitive in this 
> I was admonished by one grammar to not forget Meyer’s dictum that EIS with the
> articular infinitive is always telic. But is not the infinitive telic in this
> verse even without EIS TO?
> So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.
> (NASB)
> So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.
> If that is the case, is it simply a matter of style, i.e. another way to say 
> same thing? Or could it be added to the simple infinitive to *emphasize* to 
> reader that their eating is the central reason for their getting together in 
> first place?
> If this is true, it might shed light on the fact that the DIDACH TWN DWDEKA
> APOSTOLWN considers such an occurrence an imperative.
> 14:1)
> And on the Lord’s day, having been gathered together, break bread and give
> thanks
> Secondly, how should we look at the participle? Is it possible that we might 
> have a temporal participle at all in this verse, but rather have a causal
> participle?
> Therefore, my brethren, since you are assembling together to eat [the Lord’s
> Supper], be sure to wait for one another.
> Or, if we do, indeed, have the temporal participle, is it possible that we 
> not have a purpose infinitive after all, (in spite of all we said above), but
> rather an infinitive of result ?
> Therefore, my brethren, when you assemble together, wait for one another so 
> you can eat [the Lord’s Supper].
> Any help would be appreciated. It seems either view still fits in nicely with
> the context.
> Sincerely,
> Blue Harris
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