[B-Greek] strange "men" construction 1 Cor 2:15
nebarry at verizon.net
Thu Aug 26 23:09:09 EDT 2010
----- Original Message -----
From: "hoshi411" <hoshi411 at gmail.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, August 26, 2010 9:20 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] strange "men" construction 1 Cor 2:15
> REPOST, SORRY I FORGOT MY ADDRESS AND NAME!!
> 1 Corinthians 2:15
> ο δε πνευματικος ανακρινει μεν παντα αυτος δε υπ ουδενος ανακρινεται
> hO DE PNEUMATIKOS ANAKRINEI MEN PANTA AUTOS DE HUP OUDENOS ANAKRINETAI
> My translation so far is:
> Sure, The Spiritual-One always-analyzes all-things. He-Himself is-
> never-analyzed by anybody.
> My question is:
> Why does the "MEN" come after a verb? Usually the "MEN" is written at the
> beginning of the clause or after a noun that it is pointing to, but in
> this sentence it is following a verb which isn't even a particle or
> infinitive O_o
> I could not find any explanation of what happens when MEN follows a verb
> at the end of a clause.
This is more of a text critical problem than anything else -- you'll note
that N-A omits MEN and writes TA (which is supported by some manuscripts).
Metzger, in *A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament* writes:
"Although it is possible that copyists may have ommitted the word because it
seemed to be inappropriate following DE at the beginning of the sentence,
the Committee thought it more probable that the word was added by pedantic
copyists in order to provide a correlative for the following DE."
If original to the text, it would have be contrastive with the following DE,
but it would be highly unusual, because of the first DE.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Classics and Bible Instructor, TAA
(2010 Savatori Excellence in Education Winner)
V-P of Academic Affairs, TNARS
bhofstetter at tnars.net
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