[B-Greek] strange "men" construction 1 Cor 2:15
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Thu Aug 26 21:47:49 EDT 2010
You appear to be following the Byz Maj textform since μέν does not appear in
the critical text. Μέν is postpositive so that it never appears at the
beginning of its clause. Due to the fact that the clause already has a
postpositive δέ the μέν seems to have been shoved further down the line.
Μέν ... δέ serves to indicate a contrast so in the Byz Maj text they are
emphasizing the contrast between two items. What is contrasted is [τα] πάντα
and οὑδένος. It would appear that the two indicators are placed as closely as
possible to the two items which are contrasted thereby.
… search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
From: hoshi411 <hoshi411 at gmail.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Thu, August 26, 2010 6:20:52 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] strange "men" construction 1 Cor 2:15
REPOST, SORRY I FORGOT MY ADDRESS AND NAME!!
1 Corinthians 2:15
ο δε πνευματικος ανακρινει μεν παντα αυτος δε υπ ουδενος ανακρινεται
hO DE PNEUMATIKOS ANAKRINEI MEN PANTA AUTOS DE HUP OUDENOS ANAKRINETAI
My translation so far is:
Sure, The Spiritual-One always-analyzes all-things. He-Himself is-never-analyzed
My question is:
Why does the "MEN" come after a verb? Usually the "MEN" is written at the
beginning of the clause or after a noun that it is pointing to, but in this
sentence it is following a verb which isn't even a particle or infinitive O_o
I could not find any explanation of what happens when MEN follows a verb at the
end of a clause.
hoshi411 at gmail.com
ecclesiologyproper at gmail.com
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