Oun Kwon kwonbbl at gmail.com
Mon Aug 23 13:18:02 EDT 2010

On Sun, Aug 22, 2010 at 7:23 AM, Iver Larsen <iver_larsen at sil.org> wrote:
> So, the AUTOIS in v. 23 refers to the crowd gathered around him,
> including the disciples and these Greeks.
> Jesus is not specifically addressing the Greeks.
> (And he probably did not speak in Greek to the crowd.)
> Why does John mention these Greeks (Gentiles)?
> Possibly because this is the last public speech Jesus gives,
> and the inclusion of the Greeks' wish to meet Jesus foreshadows
> that the gospel is to be preached to Greeks, too, so that ALL
> may believe in Jesus as the Messiah and receive eternal life (20:31).

> Iver Larsen

I might just add Alford's footnote here:

* *v. 23* Did the Greeks see (i.e. speak with) Jesus, or not?* Certainly *
not*, if I understand His discourse rightly. But they may have been present
at, and have understood it. The substance of His answer (AUTOIS, to Philip
and Andrew, not the Greeks) is, that the time was now come for His
glorification which should draw all nations to Him: - but that glorification
must be accomplished by His Death. The very appearance of these Greeks is to
Him a token that His glorification is at hand. Stier strikingly says, "Thee
men from the West at the end of the Life of Jesus, set forth the same as the
Magi from the East at its beginning; - but they come to the *Cross *of the
King as those to his *cradle*." ...The rejection of the Jews for their
unbelief is the secondary subject, and is commented on by the Evangelist,
vv. 37-43. (p. 834)

Oun Kwon

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