[B-Greek] Periphrastic constructions in Mat 10 (Joseph Justiss)

Joseph Justiss jljustiss at gmail.com
Wed Aug 18 09:11:42 EDT 2010

In reading through Matthew I noticed that an abnormally large concentration
of periphrastic constructions with a form of eimi + a participle shows up in
chapter 10 (e.g. vv20, 22, 26, 30). Has anyone argued, or would it be
possible to argue, that this is due to the more literal translation here at
this point in the text from an original Aramaic source into Koine Greek? In
other words, could the source of this piece of discourse from Jesus in
Matthew 10 have originally been penned in an Aramaic very similar to what
Jesus may have actually said and then subsequently translated into Greek in
a very literal fashion? My reasoning assumes that 1st Century Palestinian
Aramiac was more fond of the periphrastic construction than 1st century
Koine. Is this a valid assumption?

Joseph Justiss

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