[B-Greek] John 14:30b what sense?

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Sun Aug 15 11:22:57 EDT 2010


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Mark Lightman" <lightmanmark at yahoo.com>
To: "Eric Inman" <eric-inman at comcast.net>; "Oun Kwon" <kwonbbl at gmail.com>; 
<b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 15. august 2010 16:26
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] John 14:30b what sense?


> Eric wrote
>
> <I get the feeling that the author of John tends to formulate his own  idioms
> rather than just using preexisting ones due to the highly  repetitive nature
> of his phrasing and rephrasing of things. Therefore  I tend to like a rather
> literal translation into English, thus  allowing corresponding English idioms
> to form as well. The English  translations might not occur in normal English,
> but I'm not sure that  John's phrasings were normal Greek. Thus in Johanine
> idiomatic  English I would just say "he has nothing in me". In proper English
> I  would say "he is completely separate from me".>
>
> Hi, Eric,
>
> It's not just you.  I get a similar feeling.  When I read John, I always 
> notice
> something about
> the Greek.  It's Greek, and it's not Greek.  It's simple and artless, and yet
> something is going on that is deeply creative.  You put your DAKTULON on it
> well.
>

What about "He has nothing on me"? He has nothing to put his DAKTULON on, no 
sin, no fault, and therefore no accusation and no power. (I might translate "He 
has no power/authority over me." A fairly standard translation since RSV.) Jesus 
does his Father's bidding, not the bidding of the "ruler of this world".

Iver Larsen 




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