[B-Greek] John 14:30b what sense?

Barry nebarry at verizon.net
Sun Aug 15 07:43:16 EDT 2010


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Oun Kwon" <kwonbbl at gmail.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Sunday, August 15, 2010 12:10 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] John 14:30b what sense?


> Jn 14:30
> OUKETI POLLA LALHSW MEQ' hUMWN, ERCETAI GAR hO TOU KOSMOU ARCWON.
> KAI EN EMOI OUK ECEI OUDEN

> The last sentence KAI EN EMOI OUK ECEI OUDEN is difficult to get a
> clear sense. My attempt is (in English):
>
> Yeah, in me he has nothing to find [to make me do otherwise].

Lit., "And in me he has nothing..."

> I would appreciate if I have a translation of Latin on this (? by
> Augustine)(found in Alford).
>
> Nullum scilicet omnino peccatum.

This is from Augustine *Tractate 79* 
http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/1701079.htm

Sorry, I couldn't find the Latin text, but this link to one of my favorite 
late 19th-early 20th century commentators had a bit more of it:

http://tinyurl.com/24sfjvn

"Surely altogether without sin... since neither had God come with sin, nor 
did the virgin give birth to his flesh from the propagation of sin," and see 
the commentary proper.

If you check the commentaries, there is a long tradition (going back to 
Augustine, right?) of interpretation that "he has nothing in me" refers that 
which the prince of darkness can use as power over Jesus, cf. the RSV/NRSV 
translations, Bruce, *The Gospel of John* sub loc., etc.

N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Classics and Bible Instructor, TAA
http://www.theamericanacademy.net
(2010 Savatori Excellence in Education Winner)
Mentor, TNARS
http://www.tnars.net

http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog
http://mysite.verizon.net/nebarry




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