[B-Greek] John 14:30b what sense?

Eric Inman eric-inman at comcast.net
Sun Aug 15 05:46:09 EDT 2010


The way I take it is that in John two parties are fully identified with each
other when they are one ("hEN"), when they are in (EN) each other (John
17:21-23). I take EN EMOI OUK ECEI OUDEN as the opposite of that. The ARCWN
has nothing in Jesus, i.e. no part of him is in Jesus, i.e. he has no
association with Jesus whatsoever and nothing of his nature.

I get the feeling that the author of John tends to formulate his own idioms
rather than just using preexisting ones due to the highly repetitive nature
of his phrasing and rephrasing of things. Therefore I tend to like a rather
literal translation into English, thus allowing corresponding English idioms
to form as well. The English translations might not occur in normal English,
but I'm not sure that John's phrasings were normal Greek. Thus in Johanine
idiomatic English I would just say "he has nothing in me". In proper English
I would say "he is completely separate from me".

Interestingly John's terminology is very similar to that used in set theory.
Two sets are equal if each is in (is a subset of) the other. Two sets are
disjoint (no overlap) if no portion of either is in the other, if either has
nothing in the other.

Eric Inman

-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Oun Kwon
Sent: Saturday, August 14, 2010 11:11 PM
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: [B-Greek] John 14:30b what sense?

 Jn 14:30
OUKETI POLLA LALHSW MEQ' hUMWN, ERCETAI GAR hO TOU KOSMOU ARCWON.
KAI EN EMOI OUK ECEI OUDEN

The last sentence KAI EN EMOI OUK ECEI OUDEN is difficult to get a clear
sense. My attempt is (in English):

Yeah, in me he has nothing to find [to make me do otherwise].

I would appreciate if I have a translation of Latin on this (? by
Augustine)(found in Alford).

Nullum scilicet omnino peccatum.

Oun Kwon.


Oun Kwon.
---
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