[B-Greek] John 2:15

jgibson000 at comcast.net jgibson000 at comcast.net
Fri Aug 13 09:06:27 EDT 2010

On 8/13/2010 6:54 AM, Carl Conrad wrote:
> On Aug 13, 2010, at 7:32 AM, dlpost at comcast.net wrote:
>> And, after all of that "making sense", there is still nothing to hang one's hat upon.
> In a way, I hesitate to add yet one more note to this thread without really saying
> something new -- but I don't think there's anything new to say about it. It seems
> to me that we recognize that the Greek text doesn't give us enough to resolve
> the question here to everyone's satisfaction. We are beating a dead horse (there's
> an original thought, no?): some of us read the context as intelligible only if we
> understand πάντας ἐξέβαλεν [PANTAS EXEBALEN] to mean that Jesus used
> the whip to drive out man and beast while others are just as convinced that it
> must mean that he drove out all the beasts. Seems to me that an immense
> effort is being expended to tip the balance of an imponderable that won't budge.
In the FWIW department, perhaps it's worthwhile to see how a Church 
Father who spoke Greek, and who was known for the strength of his 
understanding of the NT text,  understood what John was saying in 2:15

To that end, I offer this  anecdote, recounted by Comas Indicopleuestes 
(ca. 530),  concerning Theodore of Mopsuestia (d. 428):

“Rabbula previously showed much friendship toward the famous interpreter 
(Theodore) and studied his works. Yet when, having gone to 
Constantinople to attend the Council of the Fathers (381) he was accused 
of striking priests, and he responded that Our Lord had also struck when 
he entered the temple, the Interpreter arose and reprimanded him saying, 
‘Our Lord did not do that; he only spoke to the men, saying “take that 
away,” and turned over the tables. But he drove out
the bullocks and the sheep with the blows of his whip.’”


Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon)
1500 W. Pratt Blvd.
Chicago, Illinois
e-mail jgibson000 at comcast.net

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