[B-Greek] Mk 14:57 YEUDOMATUREW a witness - why false?

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Mon Aug 9 14:40:56 EDT 2010

On Aug 9, 2010, at 2:17 PM, Oun Kwon wrote:

> Mk 14:57	καί τινες ἀναστάντες ἐψευδομαρτύρουν κατ' αὐτοῦ λέγοντες
> Unlike Mk, the parallel in Mt 26:60b does not have such a clause to
> label what follows as a false. G-Jn (2:18ff) tells us that's what
> Jesus actually said. That means it was a genuine witness, not a false one.
> Is there anything I can solve at the level of Greek before moving on
> exegesis zone? Perhaps YEUDO may not correspond to 'false'?

I think the question being raised here gets beyond the matter of what a particular Greek text
may be shown as saying and into the hermeneutical realm of harmonizing the gospel
parallels where some might argue that they are and others might argue that they are not in
accord with each other. We don't do hermeneutics, precisely because we don't share a
common universal set of shared assumptions about it. Cf. the FAQ:

"B-Greek is not a forum for general Bible issues, except insofar as they may bear specifically 
upon interpretation of a particular Greek text, Neither is it a forum for general or specific 
hermeneutical or theological issues."

Carl W. Conrad
Co-Chair, B-Greek List
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)

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