[B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:1

yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net
Thu Apr 22 23:26:47 EDT 2010


George is, of course, right in framing ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ τοῦ θεοῦ EN DIKAIOSUNHi TOU QEOU as, generally, divne beneficence. According to BDAG in this scenario faith is described as something the believers "obtained" as a portion, receive, obtain (by lot, or by divine will) as a privilege equitably allotted by God. That is, the believers are beneficiaries and "faith" is one of several virtues of grace granted by God along with promises of more (v. 3) virtues of grace that lead to further virtues of grace that eventually lead to full entrance into the kingdom of God (v.5-11). The kingdom of God seems analogous to the promised land for Israel in the Exodus. The covenantal, Jewish scenario of  Exodus provides more specificity to general divine beneficence suggested by George by adding in which God, which people, etc. are the point of comparison with believers in Jesus and their situation before God. In this case it makes sense to take the genitive τοῦ θεοῦ as a subjective genitive, picturing God as agent, and the ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ as the instrumentality or the manner by which God grants what believers LACOUSIN λαχοῦσιν or obtain as a portion.


 
Yancy Smith, PhD
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Y.W.Smith at tcu.edu
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On Apr 22, 2010, at 6:57 PM, George F Somsel wrote:

> The address is τοῖς ἰσότιμον ἡμῖν λαχοῦσιν πίστιν TOIS ISOTIMON hHMIN LAXOUSIN PISTN "to those who have received faith like ours."  The question is how the rest of the sentence is to be construed.  Is it the object of the faith or is faith received by the instrument of δικαιοσύνῃ τοῦ θεοῦ ... DIKAIOSUNHi TOU QEOU ... ?  What is δικαιοσύνῃ DIKAIOSUNHi ?  I tend to understand the phrase as relating to the instrumentality by which this faith is imparted and the DIKAIOSUNH itself as specifying not a legal concept such as justice but rather the divine beneficence. 
> 
> , dikaiosynēis linked with beneficence and philanthropy. In the second century bc, Theodorus is praised “for his beneficence and his justice toward all” (euergesias heneken kai dikaiosynēs tēs pros hapantas, SB9974, 7), as is Callicles, and Musonius defines virtue thus: “Virtue (aretē) is brotherly love and goodness and dikaiosynēand beneficence” (frag. 14, ed. C. E. Lutz, p. 92, 32; frag. 16, p. 104, 33; frag. 17, p. 108, 2; frag. 38, p. 136, 3; cf. frag. 11, p. 82, 33; frag. 13 b, p. 90, 13; cf. Philo, Quest. Gen.4.66). Dikaiosynēhad all of these characteristics when personified, honored, and even divinied, worshiped, given altars. 
>  
> Spicq, C., & Ernest, J. D. (1994). Theological lexicon of the New Testament (1:328). Peabody, MA.: Hendrickson.
>  
> The writer is not emphasizing a legal judgment by "our God and Savior Jesus Christ" but rather his goodwill toward mankind.
>  
>  george
> gfsomsel 
> 
> 
> … search for truth, hear truth, 
> learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
> defend the truth till death.
> 
> 
> - Jan Hus
> _________ 
> 
> 
> 
> 
> ________________________________
> From: Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com>
> To: B-Greek <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Thu, April 22, 2010 2:22:49 PM
> Subject: [B-Greek] 2 Peter 1:1
> 
> Forwarded for: Greg Marquez <marquezgoyo at gmail.com>
> Date: April 22, 2010 4:51:25 PM EDT
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: 2 Peter 1:1
> 
> 
> Am having a bit of difficulty with 2 Peter 1:1 
> 
> Συμεὼν Πέτρος δοῦλος καὶ ἀπόστολος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ τοῖς ἰσότιμον ἡμῖν λαχοῦσιν πίστιν ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, 
> [SUMEWN PETROS DOULOS KAI APOSTOLOS IHSOU CRISTOU TOIS ISOTIMON hHMIN LACOUSIN PISTIN EN DIKAIOSUNHi TOU QEOU hHMWN KAI SWTHROS IHSOU CRISTOU, ]
> 
> as the concept of receiving faith through the righteousness of God seems to make little sense,
> 
> Is it possible to translate this verse as something like: have received the righteousness of God through faith?
> 
> 
> Greg Marquez
> MarquezGoyo at gmail.com
> 
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