cornellmachiavelli at yahoo.com
Tue Apr 20 21:42:13 EDT 2010
I'm not sure if this question is out of bounds, but I am trying to find out why the word QEOPNEUSTOS has led theologians to conclude that this word indicates that the text that is QEOPNEUSTOS must be error-free. Is there anything in the etymology of this word that requires the conclusion that a text that is partly (man was involved too) the result of QEOPNEUSTOS is perfection in all respects? I'm not concerned with whether anyone holds to inerrancy or not, I am just wondering about the relationship between QEOPNEUSTOS and inerrancy.
C. Q. Machiavelli
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