[B-Greek] "result" expressed by adverbial participles?

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Mon Apr 19 16:09:29 EDT 2010

On Apr 19, 2010, at 2:19 PM, Ladislav Tichy wrote:
> What about the category "result" of the adverbial participle defined by D.
> B. Wallace (Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, pp. 637-39). Some of his
> examples seem to be convincing (e.g. Eph 2:15), some not (e.g. Mk 9:7).
> This category is absent e.g. in Smyth, Greek Grammar (nn. 2060-2067).
> Could Wallace's category of result be subsumed under the category of
> purpose?

I think we've noted in other instances that Wallace's categories and subcategories
are based upon interpretation of the context rather than on anything inherent in
fundamental semantics of a construction. Smyth has done a bit of that sort of
thing, but note what he says in §2069:

"The force of these circumstantial participles does not lie in the participle itself, 
but is derived from the context. Unless attended by some modifying adverb, 
the context often does not decide whether the participle has a temporal, a causal,
 a conditional, a concessive force, etc.; and some participles may be referred 
to more than one of the above classes."

That strikes me as a very sensible cautionary note. I personally think that 
Wallace's categories and subcategories involve a catch-22: they seem designed
to train the student to identify readily which category or subcategory of usage
one has encountered and so avoid thinking through the contextual factors in
every exegetical analysis; on the other hand, one must expend considerable
effort on understanding how he goes about analyzing the individual contexts.

I would raise the question -- rhetorically, of course, but with purpose or maybe
with  result -- take your choice ;-) Are these distinctions offered by Wallace in 
GGBB more convincing or more readily intelligible than those in the 
treatises of academic Linguists that have been recommended in this forum?

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)

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