[B-Greek] STHKW e.g. Philippians 1:27

Mark Lightman lightmanmark at yahoo.com
Mon Apr 12 00:04:41 EDT 2010

Hi, Stephen,
Your analysis of this verb is excellent.  LSJ says STHKW is a 
"late present" formed from the perfect.  I agree with you that the
use in Phil 1:27 seems to be stative or perfective, "I am firm, I am steadfast,
I'm a stand-up kind of a guy."  The other NT uses seem similar.
It's fairly common of course for a verb to have different forms
etc.  But I cannot think of a NT or other verb that is really analogous
to your take on STHKW.  A really good parallel would be QEIKW
from TIQHMI, if such a word existed.
ISTHMI is such a strange verv to begin with, with this business
of becoming intransitive in several ways (second aorist, perfect,
passive) that it might be hard to find a precise parallel, but I bet
there is something close out there.  I'll keep looking.
But again, a great question and a great insight into this verb.  

Mark L


--- On Sun, 4/11/10, Stephen Baldwin <stbaldwi at hotmail.com> wrote:

From: Stephen Baldwin <stbaldwi at hotmail.com>
Subject: [B-Greek] STHKW e.g. Philippians 1:27
To: "B- Greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Date: Sunday, April 11, 2010, 9:21 PM

Ladies and Gentlemen:
I was intrigued by the verb STHKW as found e.g. in Philippians 1:27.
BDAG, BDF etc note that it is based on the perfect of hISTHMI -- which even a novice can at least detect ;-)

I would like to know how a verb like this is to be understood -- what nuances does such a verb bring, given that it is based on another verb, indeed how such verbs arise. It appears that the first occurrences of STHKW are in the NT.
I did a brief comparison of hISTHMI versus STHKW in BDAG and to me, from the range of definitions given, that hISTHMI seems to carry "ingressive" nuances -- the initialisation of a state of standing etc. whereas STHKW seems to imply stative overtones -- that is, we are already in the state of standing or being committed.
Is this a correct view of approaching the matter? It would seem to be at least from my example from Philippians -- that whether Paul comes or does not come to see them, that he might hear that they are [already] standing as/in one spirit etc.

How common is it to have a verb based off a particular stem of a [more common] verb? To the best of my recollection, this is the first time I have come across such a verb.
I'm always a trifle disappointed that the more advanced commentaries that claim to focus more on the Greek [eg New International Greek Testament] more often than not, do not expound on these matters...

Stephen Baldwin
stbaldwi at hotmail.com

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