[B-Greek] Mark 1:41

RRedden604 at aol.com RRedden604 at aol.com
Thu Apr 8 19:20:03 EDT 2010


Ron,
 
A.T. Robertson has a fine discourse on the historical present (866f).   
Mark and John seem to be more fond of its use than the other NT  writers.  He 
claims Luke in most parallels changes the  historical present since it was 
not to his liking.  However, in Lk. 5:13,  the parallel to Mk. 1:41 he uses 
the present part.  It seems to me, as  Mark L. points out, to be Mark's 
proclivity rather than something  significant.
 
I, too, would like to hear the B-Gk scholars respond.
 
Rob Redden 
 
 
In a message dated 4/8/2010 1:14:42 P.M. Pacific Daylight Time,  
sarasotapt at comcast.net writes:

Is there  anything specific regarding the timing that we can glean from 
the events  in Mark 1:41, describing the healing of the leper. The first 
two verbs are  aorist, while the verb for speaking is found in the 
present tense. Does it  make sense to understand that Jesus was speaking 
at the same time He was  extending His hand, which culminated in the 
physical contact with the  leper? Or, should one read the present tense 
as occurring after the  contact?

kai. splagchnisqei evkteinas he cheira autou hpsato kai legei  autw

??? ????????????? ???????? ??? ????? ????? ????? ??? ?????  ????


I hope the transliteration is ok, since I could not find  anyplace on the 
list page that gives the scheme. Will also include the  unicode version 
for those that can read it.

Regards,

Ron  Snider

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