[B-Greek] DEUTEROPRWTWi in Luke 6:1
nikolaos.adamou at hotmail.com
Thu Apr 8 00:14:57 EDT 2010
δευτεροπρῶτος (ὁ) DEUTEROPRWTOS as Metzger wrongly accents it
may not be a word (masculine noun) but
(τὸ) δευτερόπρωτον (neuter noun) is a word and appear in
Liddell & Scott
Page 156, left column, 7th entry
δευτερό-πρωτον, σάββατον, το, the first Sabbath after the second day
of the feast of unleavened bread.
The same explanation is also give in the following source.
[The next verse helps to explain an expression in Luke 6: 1, about
which very likely some here present have found difficulty, as
certainly most people elsewhere. "And it came to pass on the second
sabbath after the first, that he went through the cornfields: and his
disciples plucked the ears of corn and did eat, rubbing them in their
hands." What is the force of '`the second sabbath after the first"? To
explain this it is of little use to send you to the commentators: for
they are all at sea about it, as too often about difficulties for
which help would be welcome. Some have had recourse to a harsh way of
getting out of the difficulty by cutting out the word (for in Greek it
is only a single word, δευτεροπρώτῳ): a very dangerous principle where
the Bible is concerned. One celebrated critic thus guilty repented,
virtually confessing the fault by replacing it. But it is no bad moral
lesson for us when we can say, "I do not know." This at least is true
and lowly: and if one looks up for light, it is well; for thus God can
give what is lacking.]
The two Metzger's assumptions that Carl& George sited in the related quotation
are just assumptions with no evidence to support them.
The word δευτερόπρωτον exists and identifies the Sabbath (DEUTERON)
after Passover (PRWTON),
between April and May, where the fields in Palestine, the Middle East
and places around Mediterranean start producing grains.
στάχυς is the head of grain as
gives not corn that was unknown to that area at that time BUT the top of grain in general.
So, it may not be “probable corrupted” but specific and clear. I do
have doubts for the text that from 1904 to 2010 was revised several
times in its 27 editions, and as we heard in this group, its 28th
edition adopts writing that does not exists in any Greek manuscript
ever (2 Peter 3:10) with a clear demonstration of arbitrariness and
not to the text (Andoniades) that remained unchanged since its
publication in 1904 (the same year that biblical society started the
distribution of Nestle’s text). Another example Luke 12:20 Adjective
Masculine Singular Vocative Ἄφρων or ἄφρον?
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