[B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Thu Apr 1 11:09:16 EDT 2010


I suppose whether φιλαργυρία FILARGURIA is a theological issue or not depends upon one's perspective.  If you understand it as "love of money" then you might tend to be somewhat ascetic.  If, however, you understand it as "avarisciousness" then it simply indicates an inordinate pursuit of gain.
 george
gfsomsel 


… search for truth, hear truth, 
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
defend the truth till death.


- Jan Hus
_________ 




________________________________
From: Nikolaos Adamou <nikolaos.adamou at hotmail.com>
To: Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com>
Cc: b-Greek <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thu, April 1, 2010 7:53:05 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?


Carl



I did not attach anyone one, I used an example

and the easiest was to be critical to my own rather than others 

precisely because I did not want to be accused that attack anything or 
anyone.



Nor I talked about theology but about meaning of words, 

usage of grammar and syntax.



I do not think that filargyria was a theological issue.

Nikolaos Adamou, Ph.D.                            Associate Professor of Business Management                
BMCC / CUNY                                                                                          





> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?
> From: cwconrad2 at mac.com
> Date: Thu, 1 Apr 2010 10:45:22 -0400
> CC: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> To: nikolaos.adamou at hotmail.com
> 
> BG FAQ: "B-Greek must not be used either to attack or to defend any particular doctrine deemed "orthodox" by one or another individual or group; this is not the forum for apologetic controversy."
> 
> If list-members wish to pursue the question "Where does meaning come from" in terms 
> that are not theology-based, that's fine, but any endeavor to resolve that question in terms
> of theological doctrine will not be allowed.
> 
> Carl W. Conrad
> Co-Chair, B-Greek List
> 
> 
> On Apr 1, 2010, at 10:25 AM, Nikolaos Adamou wrote:
> > 1 Τιμ 6:10
> > ῥίζα γὰρ πάντων τῶν κακῶν ἐστιν ἡ φιλαργυρία,
> > ἧς τινες ὀρεγόμενοι ἀπεπλανήθησαν ἀπὸ τῆς πίστεως καὶ ἑαυτοὺς
> > περιέπειραν ὀδύναις πολλαῖς.
> > [ hRIZA GAR PANTWN TWN KAKWN ESTIN hH FILARGURIA,
> > hHS TINES OREGOMENOI APEPLANHQHSAN APO THS PISTEWS
> > KAI hEAUTOUS PERIEPEIRAN ODUNAS POLLAIS ]
> > Judas the one who betrayed Christ is one example of the love for money.
> > Mark 10:25, Luke 12, Luke 16 provide additional evidence, so it is not
> > just st. Paul only.
> > 
> > Greek is a very specific language, and for this is the language of
> > philosophy and theology.
> > 
> > Linguistics is a modern science, based not in Greek but in English.
> > In Greek we have clarity, and whenever we have διφορούμενον [DIFOROUMENON]
> > it is because intentionally we want to have it.
> > Biblical Greek is crystal clear.
> > There is no space to infer differently from what it is said.
> > 
> > I will give an example where the one who deviates from the Biblical language
> > is the “orthodox” church. The Bible directs that bishops are men of
> > one only wife.
> > Today the “orthodox” church deviates from this principle.
> > The first attempt to impose non married bishops ONLY was in the first
> > ecumenical synod by the representative from the Roman Church.  Then,
> > elder Paphnoutios,
> > a monk from Egypt was the one that defended the Biblical truth.
> > Later on, for political reasons, the Roman emperor of the east imposed
> > non married bishops, forced all bishops to divorce, and since then Bishops
> > are not married. This interpretation violates both Biblical and Synod rulings.
> > It is not an interpretation, it is a violation.
> > http://www.philologus.gr/4/71-2010-01-01-01-23-53/61-2010-01-01-00-41-26 
> > We pay a great price for this violation as the current revealing of
> > child molestations in the church from unmarried priests show.
> > 
> > In Greek meaning comes from three things together.
> > a)    From the meaning of the word.
> > b)    From the form of the word given by grammar (γραμματική) and
> > c)    From the place of the word within the sentence and paragraph –
> > syntax (συνατακτικό)
> > The meaning of the above analytical tools γραμματική and συνατακτικό
> > are absolutely specifics.
> > Γραμματική puts things on a line γραμμή, not on a curve.  Lines are
> > very strict, you can be either on or off, and if off, then on one side
> > or the other.  One point of a line is specifically (linearly) related
> > to another one.  Very close related to mathematical specification.  It
> > is not just coincident that Greeks used their letters for mathematical
> > as well as musical purposes.
> > Συνατακτικό is when we put everything in order συν – τάξις.  It avoids
> > chaos by putting things together in a similar way that in mathematics
> > we put equations together in a system.
> > 
> > “Orthodox” bishops have the “right” to be κακόδοξοι [kakodojoi]
> > as anyone has the right to have his/her own interpretation of the biblical
> > text that his/her interpretation allows him/her to do on their own.
> > We need a tool to allow an explanation or excuse of anything.
> > Does modern linguistics provide such a tool?  I am not sure.
> > I found valuable aspects when modern linguistics does not try to undo
> > what the Greek Grammar and Syntax do.
> > Additionally, each language deserves a judgment on its own merits.
> > As apples are apples and oranges are oranges, and both are fruits
> > any analysis of the apples and oranges is not applicable to each other.
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
                        
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