[B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?

Nikolaos Adamou nikolaos.adamou at hotmail.com
Thu Apr 1 10:53:05 EDT 2010


I did not attach anyone one, I used an example

and the easiest was to be critical to my own rather than others 

precisely because I did not want to be accused that attack anything or 

Nor I talked about theology but about meaning of words, 

usage of grammar and syntax.

I do not think that filargyria was a theological issue.

Nikolaos Adamou, Ph.D.                             Associate Professor of Business Management                
BMCC / CUNY                                                                                          

> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?
> From: cwconrad2 at mac.com
> Date: Thu, 1 Apr 2010 10:45:22 -0400
> CC: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> To: nikolaos.adamou at hotmail.com
> BG FAQ: "B-Greek must not be used either to attack or to defend any particular doctrine deemed "orthodox" by one or another individual or group; this is not the forum for apologetic controversy."
> If list-members wish to pursue the question "Where does meaning come from" in terms 
> that are not theology-based, that's fine, but any endeavor to resolve that question in terms
> of theological doctrine will not be allowed.
> Carl W. Conrad
> Co-Chair, B-Greek List
> On Apr 1, 2010, at 10:25 AM, Nikolaos Adamou wrote:
> > 1 Τιμ 6:10
> > ῥίζα γὰρ πάντων τῶν κακῶν ἐστιν ἡ φιλαργυρία,
> > ἧς τινες ὀρεγόμενοι ἀπεπλανήθησαν ἀπὸ τῆς πίστεως καὶ ἑαυτοὺς
> > περιέπειραν ὀδύναις πολλαῖς.
> > Judas the one who betrayed Christ is one example of the love for money.
> > Mark 10:25, Luke 12, Luke 16 provide additional evidence, so it is not
> > just st. Paul only.
> > 
> > Greek is a very specific language, and for this is the language of
> > philosophy and theology.
> > 
> > Linguistics is a modern science, based not in Greek but in English.
> > In Greek we have clarity, and whenever we have διφορούμενον [DIFOROUMENON]
> > it is because intentionally we want to have it.
> > Biblical Greek is crystal clear.
> > There is no space to infer differently from what it is said.
> > 
> > I will give an example where the one who deviates from the Biblical language
> > is the “orthodox” church. The Bible directs that bishops are men of
> > one only wife.
> > Today the “orthodox” church deviates from this principle.
> > The first attempt to impose non married bishops ONLY was in the first
> > ecumenical synod by the representative from the Roman Church.  Then,
> > elder Paphnoutios,
> > a monk from Egypt was the one that defended the Biblical truth.
> > Later on, for political reasons, the Roman emperor of the east imposed
> > non married bishops, forced all bishops to divorce, and since then Bishops
> > are not married. This interpretation violates both Biblical and Synod rulings.
> > It is not an interpretation, it is a violation.
> > http://www.philologus.gr/4/71-2010-01-01-01-23-53/61-2010-01-01-00-41-26
> > We pay a great price for this violation as the current revealing of
> > child molestations in the church from unmarried priests show.
> > 
> > In Greek meaning comes from three things together.
> > a)	From the meaning of the word.
> > b)	From the form of the word given by grammar (γραμματική) and
> > c)	From the place of the word within the sentence and paragraph –
> > syntax (συνατακτικό)
> > The meaning of the above analytical tools γραμματική and συνατακτικό
> > are absolutely specifics.
> > Γραμματική puts things on a line γραμμή, not on a curve.  Lines are
> > very strict, you can be either on or off, and if off, then on one side
> > or the other.  One point of a line is specifically (linearly) related
> > to another one.  Very close related to mathematical specification.  It
> > is not just coincident that Greeks used their letters for mathematical
> > as well as musical purposes.
> > Συνατακτικό is when we put everything in order συν – τάξις.  It avoids
> > chaos by putting things together in a similar way that in mathematics
> > we put equations together in a system.
> > 
> > “Orthodox” bishops have the “right” to be κακόδοξοι [kakodojoi]
> > as anyone has the right to have his/her own interpretation of the biblical
> > text that his/her interpretation allows him/her to do on their own.
> > We need a tool to allow an explanation or excuse of anything.
> > Does modern linguistics provide such a tool?  I am not sure.
> > I found valuable aspects when modern linguistics does not try to undo
> > what the Greek Grammar and Syntax do.
> > Additionally, each language deserves a judgment on its own merits.
> > As apples are apples and oranges are oranges, and both are fruits
> > any analysis of the apples and oranges is not applicable to each other.
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