[B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Thu Apr 1 10:45:22 EDT 2010

BG FAQ: "B-Greek must not be used either to attack or to defend any particular doctrine deemed "orthodox" by one or another individual or group; this is not the forum for apologetic controversy."

If list-members wish to pursue the question "Where does meaning come from" in terms 
that are not theology-based, that's fine, but any endeavor to resolve that question in terms
of theological doctrine will not be allowed.

Carl W. Conrad
Co-Chair, B-Greek List

On Apr 1, 2010, at 10:25 AM, Nikolaos Adamou wrote:
> 1 Τιμ 6:10
> ῥίζα γὰρ πάντων τῶν κακῶν ἐστιν ἡ φιλαργυρία,
> ἧς τινες ὀρεγόμενοι ἀπεπλανήθησαν ἀπὸ τῆς πίστεως καὶ ἑαυτοὺς
> περιέπειραν ὀδύναις πολλαῖς.
> Judas the one who betrayed Christ is one example of the love for money.
> Mark 10:25, Luke 12, Luke 16 provide additional evidence, so it is not
> just st. Paul only.
> Greek is a very specific language, and for this is the language of
> philosophy and theology.
> Linguistics is a modern science, based not in Greek but in English.
> In Greek we have clarity, and whenever we have διφορούμενον [DIFOROUMENON]
> it is because intentionally we want to have it.
> Biblical Greek is crystal clear.
> There is no space to infer differently from what it is said.
> I will give an example where the one who deviates from the Biblical language
> is the “orthodox” church. The Bible directs that bishops are men of
> one only wife.
> Today the “orthodox” church deviates from this principle.
> The first attempt to impose non married bishops ONLY was in the first
> ecumenical synod by the representative from the Roman Church.  Then,
> elder Paphnoutios,
> a monk from Egypt was the one that defended the Biblical truth.
> Later on, for political reasons, the Roman emperor of the east imposed
> non married bishops, forced all bishops to divorce, and since then Bishops
> are not married. This interpretation violates both Biblical and Synod rulings.
> It is not an interpretation, it is a violation.
> http://www.philologus.gr/4/71-2010-01-01-01-23-53/61-2010-01-01-00-41-26
> We pay a great price for this violation as the current revealing of
> child molestations in the church from unmarried priests show.
> In Greek meaning comes from three things together.
> a)	From the meaning of the word.
> b)	From the form of the word given by grammar (γραμματική) and
> c)	From the place of the word within the sentence and paragraph –
> syntax (συνατακτικό)
> The meaning of the above analytical tools γραμματική and συνατακτικό
> are absolutely specifics.
> Γραμματική puts things on a line γραμμή, not on a curve.  Lines are
> very strict, you can be either on or off, and if off, then on one side
> or the other.  One point of a line is specifically (linearly) related
> to another one.  Very close related to mathematical specification.  It
> is not just coincident that Greeks used their letters for mathematical
> as well as musical purposes.
> Συνατακτικό is when we put everything in order συν – τάξις.  It avoids
> chaos by putting things together in a similar way that in mathematics
> we put equations together in a system.
> “Orthodox” bishops have the “right” to be κακόδοξοι [kakodojoi]
> as anyone has the right to have his/her own interpretation of the biblical
> text that his/her interpretation allows him/her to do on their own.
> We need a tool to allow an explanation or excuse of anything.
> Does modern linguistics provide such a tool?  I am not sure.
> I found valuable aspects when modern linguistics does not try to undo
> what the Greek Grammar and Syntax do.
> Additionally, each language deserves a judgment on its own merits.
> As apples are apples and oranges are oranges, and both are fruits
> any analysis of the apples and oranges is not applicable to each other.

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