[B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?

Nikolaos Adamou nikolaos.adamou at hotmail.com
Thu Apr 1 10:25:12 EDT 2010



1 Τιμ 6:10
ῥίζα γὰρ πάντων τῶν κακῶν ἐστιν ἡ φιλαργυρία,
ἧς τινες ὀρεγόμενοι ἀπεπλανήθησαν ἀπὸ τῆς πίστεως καὶ ἑαυτοὺς
περιέπειραν ὀδύναις πολλαῖς.
[ hRIZA GAR PANTWN TWN KAKWN ESTIN hH FILARGURIA,
hHS TINES OREGOMENOI APEPLANHQHSAN APO THS PISTEWS
KAI hEAUTOUS PERIEPEIRAN ODUNAS POLLAIS ]
Judas the one who betrayed Christ is one example of the love for money.
Mark 10:25, Luke 12, Luke 16 provide additional evidence, so it is not
just st. Paul only.
 
Greek is a very specific language, and for this is the language of
philosophy and theology.
 
Linguistics is a modern science, based not in Greek but in English.
In Greek we have clarity, and whenever we have διφορούμενον [DIFOROUMENON]
it is because intentionally we want to have it.
Biblical Greek is crystal clear.
There is no space to infer differently from what it is said.
 
I will give an example where the one who deviates from the Biblical language
is the “orthodox” church. The Bible directs that bishops are men of
one only wife.
Today the “orthodox” church deviates from this principle.
The first attempt to impose non married bishops ONLY was in the first
ecumenical synod by the representative from the Roman Church.  Then,
elder Paphnoutios,
a monk from Egypt was the one that defended the Biblical truth.
Later on, for political reasons, the Roman emperor of the east imposed
non married bishops, forced all bishops to divorce, and since then Bishops
are not married. This interpretation violates both Biblical and Synod rulings.
It is not an interpretation, it is a violation.
http://www.philologus.gr/4/71-2010-01-01-01-23-53/61-2010-01-01-00-41-26
We pay a great price for this violation as the current revealing of
child molestations in the church from unmarried priests show.
 
In Greek meaning comes from three things together.
a)	From the meaning of the word.
b)	From the form of the word given by grammar (γραμματική) and
c)	From the place of the word within the sentence and paragraph –
syntax (συνατακτικό)
The meaning of the above analytical tools γραμματική and συνατακτικό
are absolutely specifics.
Γραμματική puts things on a line γραμμή, not on a curve.  Lines are
very strict, you can be either on or off, and if off, then on one side
or the other.  One point of a line is specifically (linearly) related
to another one.  Very close related to mathematical specification.  It
is not just coincident that Greeks used their letters for mathematical
as well as musical purposes.
Συνατακτικό is when we put everything in order συν – τάξις.  It avoids
chaos by putting things together in a similar way that in mathematics
we put equations together in a system.
 
“Orthodox” bishops have the “right” to be κακόδοξοι [kakodojoi]
as anyone has the right to have his/her own interpretation of the biblical
text that his/her interpretation allows him/her to do on their own.
We need a tool to allow an explanation or excuse of anything.
Does modern linguistics provide such a tool?  I am not sure.
I found valuable aspects when modern linguistics does not try to undo
what the Greek Grammar and Syntax do.
Additionally, each language deserves a judgment on its own merits.
As apples are apples and oranges are oranges, and both are fruits
any analysis of the apples and oranges is not applicable to each other.
 
 
-- 
Nikolaos Adamou, Ph.D.
Associate Professor, Business Management
CUNY/BMCC




> Date: Thu, 1 Apr 2010 04:13:48 -0700
> From: lightmanmark at yahoo.com
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org; yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?
> 
> <Even if the linguistic meaning of Paul's statement were
>  "every sort of evil" it still constitutes an exaggeration.
>  No problem there, the point would be, "many sorts of evil."
>  So I will engage in a bit of exaggeration. Everyone reads
>  Paul as if he didn't exaggerate.>
>  
> Yancy, if I have told you this once, I have told you
> this a million times:  Stop exaggerating!    :)
> 
> 
> Mark L
> 
> 
> FWSFOROS MARKOS
> 
> --- On Thu, 4/1/10, yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net <yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net> wrote:
> 
> 
> From: yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net <yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net>
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?
> To: "greek B-Greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Date: Thursday, April 1, 2010, 5:07 AM
> 
> 
> Even if the linguistic meaning of Paul's statement were "every sort of evil" it still constitutes an exaggeration. No problem there, the point would be, "many sorts of evil." So I will engage in a bit of exaggeration. Everyone reads Paul as if he didn't exaggerate.
> 
> Yancy Smith, PhD
> yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net
> Y.W.Smith at tcu.edu
> yancy at wbtc.com
> 5636 Wedgworth Road
> Fort Worth, TX 76133
> 817-361-7565
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
> On Apr 1, 2010, at 3:10 AM, Vasileios Tsialas wrote:
> 
> > 
> > 
> > 
> >> From: iver_larsen at sil.org
> >> To: yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> >> Date: Thu, 1 Apr 2010 09:05:57 +0300
> >> Subject: [B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?
> >> 
> >> ----- Original Message ----- 
> >> From: <yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net>
> >> To: "greek B-Greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> >> Sent: 1. april 2010 07:21
> >> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] question regarding 1 Tim 6:10
> >> 
> >> 
> > [...]
> >>> Mark is correct to infer that Paul's meaning 
> >>> cannot possibly be that the love of money is actually the root of 100% all 
> >>> evils, despite the fact that the linguistic meaning is precisely that. But we 
> >>> must allow Paul the freedom we give ourselves, to quote and shape and 
> >>> exaggerate and skew linguistic and speaker meaning.
> >>> 
> >>> The first two paragraphs above are adapted from Sperber and Wilson, Relevance: 
> >>> Communication and Cognition.
> >>> 
> >>> Yancy Smith, PhD
> >> 
> > 
> > 
> > Even though I agree with the spirit of thought, I wouldn't agree that here Paul says that, "love of money is actually THE root of 100% ALL evils". Ρίζα RIZA is unarticulated and παντων PANTWN can mean, instead of "all", "every short of". The meanning of this phrase, as long as I understand it in Greek, is: "Love of money causes every short of evils", which is not really an exaggeration.
> > Vasileios Tsialas
> > Athens, Greece                           
> > _________________________________________________________________
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