[B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?

yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net
Thu Apr 1 07:07:10 EDT 2010

Even if the linguistic meaning of Paul's statement were "every sort of evil" it still constitutes an exaggeration. No problem there, the point would be, "many sorts of evil." So I will engage in a bit of exaggeration. Everyone reads Paul as if he didn't exaggerate.

Yancy Smith, PhD
yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net
Y.W.Smith at tcu.edu
yancy at wbtc.com
5636 Wedgworth Road
Fort Worth, TX 76133

On Apr 1, 2010, at 3:10 AM, Vasileios Tsialas wrote:

>> From: iver_larsen at sil.org
>> To: yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>> Date: Thu, 1 Apr 2010 09:05:57 +0300
>> Subject: [B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?
>> ----- Original Message ----- 
>> From: <yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net>
>> To: "greek B-Greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
>> Sent: 1. april 2010 07:21
>> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] question regarding 1 Tim 6:10
> [...]
>>> Mark is correct to infer that Paul's meaning 
>>> cannot possibly be that the love of money is actually the root of 100% all 
>>> evils, despite the fact that the linguistic meaning is precisely that. But we 
>>> must allow Paul the freedom we give ourselves, to quote and shape and 
>>> exaggerate and skew linguistic and speaker meaning.
>>> The first two paragraphs above are adapted from Sperber and Wilson, Relevance: 
>>> Communication and Cognition.
>>> Yancy Smith, PhD
> Even though I agree with the spirit of thought, I wouldn't agree that here Paul says that, "love of money is actually THE root of 100% ALL evils". Ρίζα RIZA is unarticulated and παντων PANTWN can mean, instead of "all", "every short of". The meanning of this phrase, as long as I understand it in Greek, is: "Love of money causes every short of evils", which is not really an exaggeration.
> Vasileios Tsialas
> Athens, Greece 		 	   		  
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