[B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?
tsialas78 at hotmail.com
Thu Apr 1 04:10:57 EDT 2010
> From: iver_larsen at sil.org
> To: yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Date: Thu, 1 Apr 2010 09:05:57 +0300
> Subject: [B-Greek] Where does meaning come from?
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: <yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net>
> To: "greek B-Greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: 1. april 2010 07:21
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] question regarding 1 Tim 6:10
> >Mark is correct to infer that Paul's meaning
> > cannot possibly be that the love of money is actually the root of 100% all
> > evils, despite the fact that the linguistic meaning is precisely that. But we
> > must allow Paul the freedom we give ourselves, to quote and shape and
> > exaggerate and skew linguistic and speaker meaning.
> > The first two paragraphs above are adapted from Sperber and Wilson, Relevance:
> > Communication and Cognition.
> > Yancy Smith, PhD
Even though I agree with the spirit of thought, I wouldn't agree that here Paul says that, "love of money is actually THE root of 100% ALL evils". Ρίζα RIZA is unarticulated and παντων PANTWN can mean, instead of "all", "every short of". The meanning of this phrase, as long as I understand it in Greek, is: "Love of money causes every short of evils", which is not really an exaggeration.
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