[B-Greek] APOKRIQHTE as a subjunctive in Mark 11:29
markgvh at gmail.com
Thu Oct 29 23:14:09 EDT 2009
There are two instances of APOKRIQHTE in the LXX and three in the NT. This
is one of those words that could be either a subjunctive or imperative and
Aorist passive, 2nd plural.
1 Sam 12.3 - These would both have to be imperatives (but for a reason I
can't figure out, the CATSS morphology lists the first as an imperative and
the second as a subjunctive?)
In the NT:
It clearly is a subjunctive in Luke 22:68. since it occurs in an OU MH
construction. (And NA27 places a circumflex over the H to be clear.)
In Mark 11:30 it would seem clearly to be an imperative. (And NA27 places
the accent over the E to be clear.)
Mark 11:29, however, appears to be more difficult to me. It is regularly
analyzed (so NA27 and the morph schemes in BW8) and translated in English as
an imperative. The NRS is typical: "I will ask you one question;* answer me*,
and I will tell you by what authority I do these things."
Note, however, that, this requires that one basically skip over the KAI that
immediately proceeds it. I suppose this isn't completely unusual... The
NASB, as one might expect, retains it, but you can hear that it sounds a bit
odd and a "then" is added to help clarify the sense: "I will ask you one
question, *and you answer Me*, and *then *I will tell you by what authority
I do these things."
I am wondering if it wouldn't better to take the APOKRIQHTE as a
subjunctive. My sense of the translation then would be: "I will ask you one
question, *and should you answer me*, I will also tell you by what authority
I do these things." The difficulty with my rendering is having to take the
second KAI as an "also" or "indeed."
1) Is this a legitimate way of understanding the subjunctive?
2) Does the subjunctive work better than the imperative in this context?
Mark V Hoffman
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