[B-Greek] Perfect in Joshua 10:19

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Wed Oct 28 14:19:34 EDT 2009


On Oct 28, 2009, at 1:16 PM, Ken Penner wrote:

> FWIW, Kalós software gives the second person plural perfect  
> imperative of ἵστημι hISTHMI as ἑστήκετε hESTHKETE.
> But the MH indicates imperative rather than indicative.

Smyth §698: The second perfect is rare, and occurs only in the case of  
verbs which have a present meaning. From active verbs inflected  
according to the ω- conjugation there occur κεχήνετε  
[KECHNETE] gape, Ar.Ach. 133 (χάσκω [CASKV], χαν- [CAN-]), and  
κεκρά_γετε [KEKRAGETE] screech, Vesp. 415 (κρά_ζω  
[KRAZW]). Most second perfects show the μι form and have present  
meaning, as τέθναθι [TEQNAQI] (Hom.) τεθνάτω [TEQNATW]  
from θνῄσκω [QNHiSKW] die, δέδιθι  [DEDIQI] from  
δέδια [DEDIA] fear, and κέκρα_χθι  [KEKRACQI] from  
κρά_ζω [KRAZW]  in Aristophanes. Most such second perfects are  
poetical.

hESTHKATE would be a first perfect. My guess, for what it's worth, is  
that hESTHKATE is the translator's intelligent guess at what the very- 
rare (viz. non-existent) non-periphrastic imperative of hESTHKA ought  
to be, namely stem hESTHKA- + 2 pl. imperative active ending -TE.


> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek- 
> bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Michael Aubrey
> Sent: October 28, 2009 1:44 PM
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: [B-Greek] Perfect in Joshua 10:19
>
> So I come to the LXX of Joshua 10:19 and see:
>
> ὑμεῖς δὲ μὴ ἑστήκατε καταδιώκοντες  
> ὀπίσω τῶν ἐχθρῶν ὑμῶν
> UMEIS DE MH ESTHKATE KATADIWKONTES OPISW TWN ECTHWN UMWN
>
> I initially understood ἑστήκατε ESTHKATE as a perfect  
> indicative, which is exactly what it looks like. But then I saw that  
> the NETS translates the word as an imperative, which actually makes  
> significantly more sense in context. So then I began looking for  
> information about perfect imperatives. I know, now, that on the rare  
> occasion that they do occur they tend to be formed as periphrastics.  
> But I also already knew there is a non-periphrastic in Ephesians  
> 5:5: ἴστε ISTE. So, my question is this: when imperatives are  
> formed inflectionally, do they look like indicatives like we have  
> with other periphrastics?
>
> I've dug through Robertson as well as Moulton & Howard, but to no  
> avail. Thoughts? Comments?
>
> Mike Aubrey
> http://evepheso.wordpress.com
>
>
>
>
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