[B-Greek] Perfect in Joshua 10:19

Michael Aubrey mga318 at yahoo.com
Wed Oct 28 13:18:52 EDT 2009


Good call on the MH. I totally missed that.

Thanks!




________________________________
From: Ken Penner <kpenner at stfx.ca>
To: Michael Aubrey <mga318 at yahoo.com>; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Wed, October 28, 2009 10:16:37 AM
Subject: RE: [B-Greek] Perfect in Joshua 10:19

FWIW, Kalós software gives the second person plural perfect imperative of ἵστημι hISTHMI as ἑστήκετε hESTHKETE.
But the MH indicates imperative rather than indicative.


Ken M. Penner, Ph.D.
Assistant Professor, Religious Studies
St. Francis Xavier University
Antigonish, NS
(902)867-2265
kpenner at stfx.ca
http://people.stfx.ca/kpenner 


-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Michael Aubrey
Sent: October 28, 2009 1:44 PM
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: [B-Greek] Perfect in Joshua 10:19

So I come to the LXX of Joshua 10:19 and see:

ὑμεῖς δὲ μὴ ἑστήκατε καταδιώκοντες ὀπίσω τῶν ἐχθρῶν ὑμῶν 
UMEIS DE MH ESTHKATE KATADIWKONTES OPISW TWN ECTHWN UMWN

I initially understood ἑστήκατε ESTHKATE as a perfect indicative, which is exactly what it looks like. But then I saw that the NETS translates the word as an imperative, which actually makes significantly more sense in context. So then I began looking for information about perfect imperatives. I know, now, that on the rare occasion that they do occur they tend to be formed as periphrastics. But I also already knew there is a non-periphrastic in Ephesians 5:5: ἴστε ISTE. So, my question is this: when imperatives are formed inflectionally, do they look like indicatives like we have with other periphrastics?

I've dug through Robertson as well as Moulton & Howard, but to no avail. Thoughts? Comments?

Mike Aubrey
http://evepheso.wordpress.com 



      
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