[B-Greek] Perfect in Joshua 10:19
mga318 at yahoo.com
Wed Oct 28 12:44:22 EDT 2009
So I come to the LXX of Joshua 10:19 and see:
ὑμεῖς δὲ μὴ ἑστήκατε καταδιώκοντες ὀπίσω τῶν ἐχθρῶν ὑμῶν
UMEIS DE MH ESTHKATE KATADIWKONTES OPISW TWN ECTHWN UMWN
I initially understood ἑστήκατε ESTHKATE as a perfect indicative, which is exactly what it looks like. But then I saw that the NETS translates the word as an imperative, which actually makes significantly more sense in context. So then I began looking for information about perfect imperatives. I know, now, that on the rare occasion that they do occur they tend to be formed as periphrastics. But I also already knew there is a non-periphrastic in Ephesians 5:5: ἴστε ISTE. So, my question is this: when imperatives are formed inflectionally, do they look like indicatives like we have with other periphrastics?
I've dug through Robertson as well as Moulton & Howard, but to no avail. Thoughts? Comments?
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