[B-Greek] Matthew 26:64 συ ειπας

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Fri Oct 23 01:20:00 EDT 2009


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "James Ernest" <jdernest at alum.bu.edu>
To: "Cornell Machiavelli" <cornellmachiavelli at yahoo.com>
Cc: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 23. oktober 2009 05:12
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Matthew 26:64 συ ειπας


>> Does the use of πλην shortly thereafter help us determine the contrast
> between the answer (first clause) and the following clause? In fact, why the
> use of PLHN here?
> Charles Talbert's commentary on Matthew in the Paideia series (sorry, not
> yet published) says that in Matt 26:11 this phrase gives a negative answer;
> if it had been an unambiguous "yes," Pilate would have then pronounced
> sentence immediately. He didn't. So the wording itself is noncommittal; but
> Pilate takes it as a no.
>
> So at 26:64 (getting now to CT's take on PLHN):
>
> So, in Matt 26:64 Jesus’ answer to the high priest must be understood as a
> negative followed by a clarification of his identity in transcendent terms
> (cf. the same tactic in John 18:36).
>
>
> James Ernest

In Matt 27:11 the phrase is different and the context is different.

It is an exegetical mistake to transfer the meaning in Matt 27:11 to the 
intended meaning in Matt 26:64. The immediate context takes priority over a more 
distant context. John 18:38 is relevant for Mat 27:11, not 26:64. I hope the 
author has time to revise his commentary before publication :-(

Iver Larsen 




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