[B-Greek] Matthew 26:64 συ ειπας

James Ernest jdernest at alum.bu.edu
Thu Oct 22 22:12:56 EDT 2009


> Does the use of πλην shortly thereafter help us determine the contrast
between the answer (first clause) and the following clause? In fact, why the
use of PLHN here?
Charles Talbert's commentary on Matthew in the Paideia series (sorry, not
yet published) says that in Matt 26:11 this phrase gives a negative answer;
if it had been an unambiguous "yes," Pilate would have then pronounced
sentence immediately. He didn't. So the wording itself is noncommittal; but
Pilate takes it as a no.

So at 26:64 (getting now to CT's take on PLHN):

So, in Matt 26:64 Jesus’ answer to the high priest must be understood as a
negative followed by a clarification of his identity in transcendent terms
(cf. the same tactic in John 18:36).


James Ernest



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James D. Ernest, PhD, Editor
Baker Academic & Brazos Press
jernest at BakerPublishingGroup.com / http://www.BakerPublishingGroup.com
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