[B-Greek] Implied Definite Article

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Tue Oct 20 12:48:56 EDT 2009


You must remember that the AV [aka: KJV] and most other translations of the OT not specifically based on the LXX.  Not all translations include the article (mostly newer translations) -- e.g. E. A. Speiser translates Gen 1.1-3 

1 When God set about to create heaven and earth—2 the world being then a formless waste, with darkness over the seas and only an awesome wind sweeping over the water—3 God said, “Let there be light.” And there was light. 
 
Speiser, E. A. (2008). Genesis: Introduction, Translation, and Notes (3). New Haven; London: Yale University Press.

This acknowledges the fact that there is no article present though in Hebrew the article would have been solely represented by the pointing which is present in editions of the Hebrew text which are not used in the synagogue but which represent the tradition of reading.  That this tradition of reading the text is very old is evidenced by the fact that the LXX lacks the article since Greek did have the definite article (Jerome was at some disadvantage when it came to representing the article since Latin lacked either the definite or indefinite article.

george
gfsomsel 


… search for truth, hear truth, 
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
defend the truth till death.


- Jan Hus
_________ 




________________________________
From: David McCarley <Opv at knology.net>
To: Greek Language <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tue, October 20, 2009 8:51:18 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] Implied Definite Article

Both the King James Version and the Young's Literal Translation include the
definite article, the, in the phrase, "In the beginning," in John 1:1 and
both do so without including "the" in brackets to indicate the article was
added.

Why is it not apprpopriate in the above instance to show the article as
having been added when it is not specificially included in the original, yet
other implied words seem to be in brackets?

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