[B-Greek] Genre & Grounding
cwconrad2 at mac.com
Fri Oct 16 19:41:40 EDT 2009
On Oct 16, 2009, at 5:28 PM, Elizabeth Kline wrote:
> John 19:12 ἐκ τούτου ὁ Πιλᾶτος ἐζήτει
> ἀπολῦσαι αὐτόν· οἱ δὲ Ἰουδαῖοι
> ἐκραύγασαν λέγοντες· ἐὰν τοῦτον
> ἀπολύσῃς, οὐκ εἶ φίλος τοῦ
> Καίσαρος· πᾶς ὁ βασιλέα ἑαυτὸν
> ποιῶν ἀντιλέγει τῷ Καίσαρι.
> JOHN 19:12 EK TOUTOU hO PILATOS EZHTEI APOLUSAI AUTON· hOI DE
> EKRAUGASAN LEGONTES· EAN TOUTON APOLUSHiS, OUK EI FILOS TOU
> PAS hO BASILEA hEAUTON POIWN ANTILEGEI TWi KAISARI
> John 20:20 καὶ τοῦτο εἰπὼν ἔδειξεν τὰς
> χεῖρας καὶ τὴν πλευρὰν αὐτοῖς.
> ἐχάρησαν οὖν οἱ μαθηταὶ ἰδόντες
> τὸν κύριον.
> JOHN 20:20 KAI TOUTO EIPWN EDEIXEN TAS CEIRAS KAI THN PLEURAN AUTOIS.
> ECARHSAN OUN hOI MAQHTAI IDONTES TON KURION.
> How should we read EK TOUTOU in EK TOUTOU hO PILATOS EZHTEI APOLUSAI
> AUTON? Is EK TOUTOU temporal or causal? Why?
> Same question for IDONTES in hOI MAQHTAI IDONTES TON KURION, temporal
> or causal? Why?
Barring some clear indication in the context that it must be "causal"
I would prefer to understand each instance as fundamentally
John 19:12 "Thereupon PIlate sought to release him ... "
John 20:20 "With these words he displayed his hands and ... "
I rather think that we sometimes try to draw these distinctions too
sharply when such phraseology serves primarily as a narrative
connector with what preceded; it's pretty much the sort of connector
we see in Greek narrative ever since Homer:
Iliad 1.33 Ὣς ἔφατ’, ἔδεισεν δ’ ὃ γέρων
καὶ ἐπείθετο μύθῳ· [hWS EFAT', EDEISEN D' hO GERWN
KAI EPEIQETO MUQWi]
Iliad 1.43 Ὣς ἔφατ’ εὐχόμενος, τοῦ δ’
ἔκλυε Φοῖβος Ἀπόλλων [hWS EFAT' EUCOMENOS, TOU D'
EKLUE FOIBOS APOLLWN]
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
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