[B-Greek] Some Questions on John 5

Elizabeth Kline kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Thu Oct 8 16:35:27 EDT 2009


On Oct 8, 2009, at 12:34 PM, Kenneth Litwak wrote:

> 2.  I am wondering about the meaning of ECW in the first several  
> verses.  John 5:2 uses ECOUSA with its typical sense of "have."  In  
> John 5:5, however, ECWN in ECWN EN THk ASQENEIAi AUTOU, it seems  
> that ECW must be rendered, as BDAG does, something like "having been  
> in his illness."
>
>    While I agree with BDAG that this seems to be what has to be done  
> in English, Louw-Nida do not list "to be/have been" as part of the  
> semantic domain of ECW.  So I'm wondering if this usage in John is a  
> well-established idiom or if this is a case where, whatever a native  
> Greek speaker might have thought ECWN meant, we have to punt in  
> English for a sentence that makes sense. Or, alternatively, is "have  
> been" really a logical extension of the semantic domain of ECW?

I would suggest reading the entire entry for ECW in LSJ. ECO has a  
vast range of meanings and functions.  It can be used to indicate  
being or remaining in a state with the state indicated in a  
preposition phrase. This is not unusual.

Elizabeth Kline







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