[B-Greek] Matthew 5:44
rhutchin at aol.com
rhutchin at aol.com
Thu Oct 1 16:50:37 EDT 2009
Wonder no more.? No foundation in Greek, obviously.? I was reading an English translation which uses the words "Ye" and "You" in this verse which I thought were generally used to distinguish between the singular and plural.? Guess not.? I actually remember (now) from some casual study I did some time ago that the verb endings are plural.
OK.? Given that we are dealing with plurals, does this influence our earlier discussion of ENTOS hUMWN (Luke 17:20-21) where Jesus tells the Pharisees that the kingdom of God is within them and where I understood the conclusion there was that Jesus meant that the kingdom was within them as a group but not within them as individuals.? The sense of Matthew 5:44 seems to be that Jesus is talking to a group of people but means what he says to be applied to each as individuals.? Why could we not apply this sense analogously to Luke 17:21 and read it to mean that Jesus meant that the kingdom of God was within each of the Pharisees individually?
We also see this here:
Matt 5:16 - ...LAMYATW TO FOS hUMWN EMPROSQEN TWN ANQRWPWN... and I think we understand that each individual is to let his light shine versus a light shining from the group.
PS: Remember the only dumb question is the one not asked no matter how dumb the person asking it.
From: Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com>
To: rhutchin at aol.com
Sent: Thu, Oct 1, 2009 12:21 pm
Subject: OFFLIST: [B-Greek] Matthew 5:44
On Oct 1, 2009, at 11:43 AM, rhutchin at aol.com wrote:?
> Matthew 5:44?
> ...AGAPATE TOUS EXQROUS hUMWN KAI PROSEUXESQE hUPER TWN DIWKONTWN > hUMAS.?
> This couples a singular with a plural:? AGAPATE/ hUMWN? and > PROSEUXESQE/hUMAS.?
> Is there a reason why the singular is not used throughout.? What is > accomplished by coupling the plural with a singular here??
A question like this really makes us wonder about your foundation in Greek. This is rather egregious.?
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