[B-Greek] 1 John 1.9 Ed Glasscock in latest BibSac

Rod Rogers rngrogers at embarqmail.com
Tue May 5 22:45:33 EDT 2009


Mitch, in your first question you are asking
a forbidden question on this list. Maybe that
is why no one has addressed your question.
You asked, "Does the Present Tense verb
(hOMOLOGEW) really refer to some ongoing
process?", What you are really asking,
couched in a grammatical question is, "Do I
need to continually ask for forgiveness for
my sins as a believer?", "Does hOMOLOGEW mean
continuously confess?". Grammar alone is in
sufficient to answer your question, I
believe. Context determines how hOMOLOGEW is
understood in this verse. I would suggest you
determine if this is a "PRE" or "POST"
salvation confession and if this verse is
directed toward the believer or unbeliever.
Until you determine what context 1 John 1:9
falls in you will be hopelessly guessing at
it's meaning.

As to your second question, "Is that the
function of the Aorist Tense (in any mood) to
indicate 'actuality'?", I believe the answer
is no. I believe that the subjunctive mood is
used here to establish the potential of the
forgiveness of sins. That potential is only
met when one confesses his sins. The $64.00
question is, "When does this happen"? I'll
leave that up to you.

rod rogers
Bargersville, In



----- Original Message -----
From: Mitch Larramore
To: B Greek
Sent: Tuesday, May 05, 2009 2:11 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] 1 John 1.9 Ed Glasscock in
latest BibSac



Ed Glasscock, an unknown to me, has an
article in BibSac on 1 John 1.9 and I wanted
to ask a question or two on comments he
makes.

"The present tense verb "confess" implies a
continual process of confessing, which
indicates the continual potential of sin in a
believer's life."

Does the Present Tense verb (hOMOLOGEW)
really refer to some ongoing process? Does a
Present Tense verb direct the readers'
attention to the future, ever? I'm not sure I
see how a Present Tense verb speaks to any
issues beyond the "present."

"The verb AFHi is an aorist subjunctive
verb..." [In a footnote he adds, "The aorist
simply asserts the actuality of the
event..."]

Is that the function of the Aorist Tense (in
any mood) to indicate 'actuality'? I can see
an Indicative Mood denoting 'actuality,' but
not an Aorist verb, or a Subjunctive Mood
verbal, ever.

Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas



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