[B-Greek] Absent Definite Article strips Personality from The Holy Spirit (Correction #2)
4examp at gmail.com
Sat Jun 13 20:24:32 EDT 2009
I have worded things VERY poorly.
I totally disagree with the WT's position.
I am NOT looking for opinion on WT propaganda.
I am looking for scholarly comment that Biblical Greek Grammar does
not & cannot be used (abused) in such a way.
On 6/13/09, Robert George <4examp at gmail.com> wrote:
> The Watchtower's 1st Bible "dictionary" (1971), titled "Aid to Bible
> Understanding" was superseded by "Insight on the Scriptures" (1988).
> Do you agree that Greek grammar warrants such a conclusion for the
> text I capitalized?
> I would like to quote your comments (so please let me know if I may
> ALSO include your name & title).
> "Lacks personal dentification. ~ Since God himself is a Spirit and is
> holy and since all his faithful angelic sons are spirits and are holy,
> it is evident that if the "holy spirit" were a person, there should
> reasonably be given some means in the Scriptures to distinguish and
> identify such spirit person from all these other ‘holy spirits.’ It
> would be expected that, at the very least, the definite article would
> be used with it in all cases where it is not called "God’s holy
> spirit" or is not modified by some similar expression. This would at
> least distinguish it as THE Holy Spirit. But, on the contrary, in a
> large number of cases THE EXPRESSION "holy spirit" APPEARS IN THE
> ORIGINAL GREEK WITHOUT THE ARTICLE, THUS INDICATING ITS LACK OF
> PERSONALITY.-— Compare Ac 6:3, 5; 7:55; 8:15, 17, 19; 9:17; 11:24;
> 13:9, 52; 19:2; Ro 9:1; 14:17; 15:13, 16, 19; 1Co 12:3; Heb 2:4; 6:4;
> 2Pe 1:21; Jude 20, Int and other interlinear translations."
> (Insight p.1019 / Aid p.1543)
> Thanks. / Robert George
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