[B-Greek] tense shift James 1:10-11

Charles Johnson cpj5117 at gmail.com
Wed Jun 3 09:57:34 EDT 2009

Thank you. I had suspected that they were gnomic, but I wonder why James
chose to use the aorist rather than the much more common gnomic present. Is
there something about the aspect that rendered the aorist preferable, or is
there no way to know why the aorist was chosen?

On Tue, Jun 2, 2009 at 8:01 PM, Mark Lightman <lightmanmark at yahoo.com>wrote:

> The aorists in v. 11 are often cited as examples of
> gnomic aorists, describing a general
> situation which is generally true.  The fact that James picks
> up the future again as applied to the rich is 11b. is a nice
> stylish touch, and may suggest particular woes to the
> rich ADELPHOI in particular.
> Mark L.
> --- On *Tue, 6/2/09, Charles Johnson <cpj5117 at gmail.com>* wrote:
> From: Charles Johnson <cpj5117 at gmail.com>
> Subject: [B-Greek] tense shift James 1:10-11
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Date: Tuesday, June 2, 2009, 8:32 AM
> In James 1:10, the rich man's passing is in the future tense. Then, in v.
> 11, the concept is fleshed out using all aorists. What is the purpose for
> this shift?
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