[B-Greek] ESTIN Accent?

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Wed Jun 3 01:10:41 EDT 2009

Perhaps this answers your question

The use of ἐστίν ESTI/N and ἔστιν E/STIN demands special comment. When unemphatic, not at the beginning of a sentence, not preceded by ἀλλʼ ALL', εἰ EI, καί KAI, οὐκ OUK, ὅτι hOTI, τοῦτʼ TOUT', or a paroxytone syllable, as, for example, in Ἰουδαίων ἐστίν IOUDAIWN ESTI/N (Jo. 4:22), we have unaccented ἐστιν ESTIN as inἀγρός ἐστιν AGRO/S ESTIN (Mt. 13:38, 39), καθώς ἐστιν KAQW\S ESTIN (1 Jo. 3:2), etc. In some examples of mild emphasis W. H. have ἐστίν ESTIN, as in νῦν ἐστίν NUN ESTI/N (Jo. 4:23; 5:25), ποῦ ἐστίν POU ESTI/N (Mt. 2:2; Mk. 14:14). But the cases are numerous where ἔστιν E/STIN is correct, as when it is emphatic, and expresses existence or possibility, as in εἶδες ἔστιν EI=DES E/STIN (Rev. 17:18), αὐτοῦ ἔστιν AUTOU= E/STIN (Ac. 2:29),ἅγιον ἔστιν hA/GION E/STIN (Ac. 19:2), ὁ εἷς
 ἔστιν hO hEI=S E/STIN (Rev. 17:10), οὐδεὶς ἔστιν OUDEI\S E/STIN (Lu. 1:61; 7:28; 18:29). Ἔστιν E/STIN is also the accent at the beginning of sentences, as in Jo. 21:25; 1 Cor. 15:44; 1 Jo. 5:16 f.; Heb. 11:1. Cf. ἐστίν ESTI/N in Col. 1:15and ἔστιν E/STIN in 1:17. Then again we have, according to the usual rule, ἔστιν E/STIN after ἁλλʼ ALL' (Jo. 13:10), εἰ EI (1 Cor. 15:44), καὶ KAI\ (Mk. 12:11; 2 Cor. 4:3), ὅτι hO/TI (2 Th. 2:4; Mk. 6:55; Heb. 11:6), but ὅτι ἐστίν hOTI ESTI\N (Ac. 23:5) when the idea of existence is not stressed, οὐκ OUK (1 Cor. 11:20; Ro. 8:9, etc.), τοῦτʼ TOUT' (Mk. 7:2; Ro. 7:18). W. H. give only ἑστἰν ESTI/N after ποῦ POU= (Jo. 9:12; 11:57; Mk. 14:14). 
Robertson, A. (1919; 2006). A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research (233). Logos.

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From: Richard Ghilardi <qodeshlayhvh at juno.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Tuesday, June 2, 2009 3:39:35 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] ESTIN Accent?

Hello Folks,

I have examined every instance of paroxytone ESTIN in the NT and I am
satisfied that I can explain its use in every case except Rev 17:18.


In vss 8, 10 and 11 as well as in 21:1 the reason for the accented penult
is apparent: E/STIN is existential. But it certainly is not in 17:18. So
my question is: Why did the editors choose to accent E/STIN as

Yours in His grace,

Richard Ghilardi - qodeshlayhvh at juno.com
West Haven, Connecticut USA
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