[B-Greek] hINA in Jn 9:3, 11:4

Elizabeth Kline kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Wed Feb 4 13:37:17 EST 2009

On Feb 3, 2009, at 9:53 AM, Harold Holmyard wrote:

> HH: Thanks for the insight, Iver. It is clear that the first hINA, in
> John 9:2, is result. The parents or the person himself would not sin  
> in
> order that the person might become blind. The blindness would be the
> unintended result of such sin, were it the case. Jesus is actually
> saying that sin was not the cause of the blindness, so the blindness
> could not be the result of it. But the hINA in verse 3 may be a bit
> different. Jesus is looking ahead to the cure that he plans to  
> bring. He
> intends to bring God glory out of this man's blindness. The
> manifestation of God's works would be the result of it. It seems  
> hard to
> know how to tag the usage. Likewise in John 11:4. Since the glory is
> still future in both cases, Jesus seems to be talking of how God would
> use the person's malady to bring glory. An element of purpose does  
> seem
> present.  However, glory would also be the result of the occurrence of
> the malady.


There have been some grammarians who have suggested that the  
distinction between the telic and ecbatic (purpose and result) wasn't  
a feature of Hebrew thought and languages. You will find this in  
Turner, Moule and earlier works. M. Sim makes a point of demonstrating  
that we don't need to look to semitic influence to understand the use  
of hINA in Koine. All the data we need is found in the Hellenistic and  
Koine authors (Sim distinguishes Hellenistic from Koine).   The  
general trend in the last half century is to move away from semitic  
explanations of NT greek.

Elizabeth Kline

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